1. Do you any different between Aristotle's defination of tragedy and Dryden's defination of play?
yes, there is different Aristotle defination of tragedy and Dryden's defination of tragedy.
Aristotle's defination of tragedy:
" A tragedy is the imitation of an action that is serious, complete and of a certain magnitude; in the language embellished with each kind of artistic ornaments, the several kinds being found in separate parts of the play ; in the form of action; not of narrative; through pity and fear affecting the proper purgation- catharsis of these and similar emotions "
Dryden's defination of play:
" A play ought to be a just and lively image of human nature, representing its passions and humous and the change of fortune to which it is subjected,for the delight and instruction of mankind."
Aristotle give the defination of Tragedy while Wordsworth speaks about the play in general.Aristotle used the word 'pity' ,'fear','catharsis'. where as Wordsworth talk about 'Delight and instruction of mankind'. These aresome visible different in both defination
2. If you are supposed to give your personal predilection, would you be on the side of the Ancient or the Modern ? please give reason.
'Who comes first chicken or egg?' It is really hard to take side of any one because 'Nobody is better is one or another way they are better in their own way.' but I have choose modern rather than ancient . because moderns have learned from , the ancient . Moderns have learned in knowledge.
3. Do you that the arguments presented in favor of the french plays and against English plays are appropriate?
No, I think the arguments presented in favor of the French plays and against English plays are not appropriate. Because French following Ancients rules and regulations. They following time , place and actions.
The arguments have presented in Favor of the French plays and against English plays are not appropriate in one or the other way because French plays following Ancient rules and regulations. They following time, place and actions. It believes that the death should not be presented on stage and there should be only a narration of it. AS far as English plays are concern they believe that death scene should be performed because it can have a great effect on the audience though it is not 'just' and 'lively'.
4. What would be your preference so far as poetic or prosaic dialogues are concerned in the play ?
I would like to prefer prosaic dialogues because our routine and common conversations in poetic language can not give more justice to it.
yes, there is different Aristotle defination of tragedy and Dryden's defination of tragedy.
Aristotle's defination of tragedy:
" A tragedy is the imitation of an action that is serious, complete and of a certain magnitude; in the language embellished with each kind of artistic ornaments, the several kinds being found in separate parts of the play ; in the form of action; not of narrative; through pity and fear affecting the proper purgation- catharsis of these and similar emotions "
Dryden's defination of play:
" A play ought to be a just and lively image of human nature, representing its passions and humous and the change of fortune to which it is subjected,for the delight and instruction of mankind."
Aristotle give the defination of Tragedy while Wordsworth speaks about the play in general.Aristotle used the word 'pity' ,'fear','catharsis'. where as Wordsworth talk about 'Delight and instruction of mankind'. These aresome visible different in both defination
2. If you are supposed to give your personal predilection, would you be on the side of the Ancient or the Modern ? please give reason.
'Who comes first chicken or egg?' It is really hard to take side of any one because 'Nobody is better is one or another way they are better in their own way.' but I have choose modern rather than ancient . because moderns have learned from , the ancient . Moderns have learned in knowledge.
3. Do you that the arguments presented in favor of the french plays and against English plays are appropriate?
No, I think the arguments presented in favor of the French plays and against English plays are not appropriate. Because French following Ancients rules and regulations. They following time , place and actions.
The arguments have presented in Favor of the French plays and against English plays are not appropriate in one or the other way because French plays following Ancient rules and regulations. They following time, place and actions. It believes that the death should not be presented on stage and there should be only a narration of it. AS far as English plays are concern they believe that death scene should be performed because it can have a great effect on the audience though it is not 'just' and 'lively'.
4. What would be your preference so far as poetic or prosaic dialogues are concerned in the play ?
I would like to prefer prosaic dialogues because our routine and common conversations in poetic language can not give more justice to it.
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